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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 25.06.2025 03:27

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no rule.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Zionists keep saying Israel “bought” the Palestinian’s land when the ownership was less than 5% prior to 1948. If Israel did indeed purchase majority of Palestinian land, why did the zionist state pass laws to confiscate Palestinian property?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.